It depends on the topic. I think most (like 99%) Christian denominations/churches would agree with the basic tenants.
God created the universe.
Man (Adam) was created perfect but fell from grace by sinning against God.
All of Adam's descendants inherited his "sin nature."
God Himself came as Jesus, the only begotten son through the Virgin Mary to die as a sacrifice for our sins.
On the 3rd day He was resurrected (demonstrating His deity).
He walked, talked and ate with His disciples following His resurrection and many witnessed this.
50 days later He ascended to heaven and promised that He would return ("the second coming")
Outside of those basic tenants there are a lot of variances and on the "Christian forums" you will find heated discussions amongst the members.
Baptism, for instance. Is it required for Salvation? Is sprinkling water on the head sufficient or does it need to be a partial or complete submersion? Is infant baptism biblical? Depending on who you talk to, you will get different answers for all of those questions. Some with solid scriptural references (sola scriptura), some with "historical" references, some with cultural interpretation, some with "apostolic succession" adding narrative to the scriptures (e.g. Catholic Catechism).
Take this verse for instance:
Based on this passage and through the influence of the Catholic Church in the "Early Medieval Period" up to the "High Medieval Period" changed a polygamist culture into a monogamist one. The idea being that if it was good for priests to be monogamous then it was good for the general church membership as well. This influenced not only Catholic doctrine, but also doctrine of Protestant and "underground" (e.g., Baptist) churches as well. Marriage being only between one man and one woman became the cultural norm and even if the underground church would allow for polygamy, it would have been difficult to maintain such relationships in particular during the inquisitions when anything other than the Catholic Religion became heresy.
Now, this isn't the
only passage that monogamy is derived from (God created only Eve for Adam, not Eve and Sarah and Leah and Rebecca, etc...) but it is used as an example showing that having "only" one wife is "good" (and therefore having more than one must be "bad"). Yet if you study the Old Testament, you will find two things: there were rules for having more than one wife (e.g., Deuteronomy 21:15-17) and there were cultural traditions (the first wife was the "head" of all the wives). Second, the Priesthood (Old Testament, Temple Priests) was also commanded to have one wife. So, the restriction on Priests (Old and New Testament) was to have one wife.
Meanwhile, thanks to Apostolic Succession, well actually Papal Succession, Pope Gregory VII in the "High Medieval Period" overruled this passage and prohibited clergy from getting married at all. Which is odd considering the passage in context is that a man needs to know how to lead his own family in order to mentor men in the leadership of their families and now by Papal Decree clergy will be lacking in experience in this matter.
Then there are some churches that note that it was not forbidden in either Testament for a "normal" (non-clergy) man to have more than one wife, so as long as he is not clergy then it is ok for him to have more than one wife. However, western culture still frowns on this so either they keep the multiple wives a secret or the don't practice it, even though according to the religion there is "nothing wrong" with it.
So, now we have multiple views of this passage (and we're still only dealing with Western Culture).
Polygamy is ok for non-clergy, but not ok for clergy (sola scriptura).
Polygamy is not ok for everyone, clergy or not (scriptura plus historical/cultural influence)
Neither Polygamy not Monogamy is ok for clergy (they are to be celibate) and only Monogamy is ok for non-clergy (exo-scriptura by papal decree)
And yet, there is one more view. A friend of mine was a videographer for documentaries and was embedded with a Christian Bedouin tribe where the leaders (overseers/bishops) had more than one wife. In their view, based on the context of the passage, clergy needed to have
at least one wife so that he could properly counsel other men with their families. It comes down to Western culture adding the word "only" and the Bedouin culture adding the word "at least" to the above scripture.
"...the husband of
only one wife..."
vs
"...the husband of
at least one wife..."
As you can see from the above example, when it comes to topics off of the basic tenants, there can be much discrepancy and therefore passionate discussions (a.k.a. arguments) around a variety of topics amongst different denominations or churches. Indeed, even within the same local church I have heard heated discussions on a variety of topics.
When it comes to eschatology (study of end-times prophecy) there are 4 main views (and I'm just going to use definitions I found online):
- Premillennialism is the belief that Jesus will physically return to the Earth (the Second Coming) before the Millennium, a literal thousand-year golden age of peace.
- Postmillennialism, or postmillenarianism, is an interpretation of chapter 20 of the Book of Revelation which sees Christ's second coming as occurring after (Latin post-) the "Millennium", a Golden Age in which Christian ethics prosper.
- Amillennialism or amillenarism is a chillegoristic eschatological position in Christianity which holds that there will be no millennial reign of the righteous on Earth.
- Preterism, a Christian eschatological view, interprets some (partial preterism) or all (full preterism) prophecies of the Bible as events which have already happened.
Within Premillennialism (which is my belief) there are also 5 positions regarding "the Rapture":
- Pretribulation - Christians are raptured away before the Antichrist takes power.
- Midtribulation - Christians are raptured about midway through the Tribulation period, about the same time the Antichrist declares that he is god.
- PreWrath - Christians are raptured out somewhere between midway and the end, but prior to "the wrath of God's judgment" being poured out onto the earth.
- Postribulation - Christians are raptured out as Jesus is returning.
- No Rapture - self-explanatory.
This is why one of my firsts posts in this thread was to outline my beliefs so that the reader who understands these different eschalogical views would understand my "model of the world."
Does this answer your question?